FCPS Part 1 Pathology and microbiologyMedicine Paper 2

Hypersensitivity reactions

Hypersensitivity reactions types I to IV for FCPS: mechanisms and examples

Hypersensitivity types I to IV for FCPS Part 1: IgE and mast cells, antibodies against cells, immune complexes and T-cell reactions, with key diseases. Ask what does the damage and when it appears, and the type, test and treatment follow.

The four types (Gell and Coombs)

TypeWhat does the damageTimingExamples
I: immediateAllergen cross-links IgE on mast cells and basophilsMinutes; late phase 4–8 hAnaphylaxis, asthma, hay fever, urticaria, food, drug and venom allergy
II: antibody against cells or receptorsIgG or IgM binds antigen fixed on a cell or tissue: complement lysis, phagocytosis, ADCC, or receptor blocking or stimulationMinutes to daysABO transfusion reaction, haemolytic disease of the newborn, autoimmune haemolysis, ITP, Goodpasture, acute rheumatic fever, pemphigus, myasthenia gravis, Graves disease
III: immune complexSoluble antigen–antibody complexes deposit, fix complement, attract neutrophils1–3 weeks (Arthus: hours)SLE, post-streptococcal GN, serum sickness, Arthus reaction, polyarteritis nodosa (HBV), cryoglobulinaemia, hypersensitivity pneumonitis (early)
IV: delayed, T-cellCD4 Th1 cells activate macrophages, or CD8 cells kill directly48–72 hMantoux, contact dermatitis, granulomas (TB, sarcoid), acute cellular rejection, SJS/TEN, type 1 diabetes, multiple sclerosis
  • The order is Anaphylactic, Cytotoxic, immune Complex, Delayed. Complement fragments C3a and C5a (anaphylatoxins) degranulate mast cells and raise vascular permeability; C5a also attracts neutrophils.

Type I: IgE and mast cells

  • Sensitisation: first exposure drives Th2 cells (IL-4, IL-13) to switch B cells to IgE, which coats mast cells by the high-affinity receptor FcεRI. IL-5 recruits eosinophils. On re-exposure, cross-linking releases histamine and tryptase (preformed), then leukotrienes and prostaglandins.
  • Late phase: eosinophils and Th2 cytokines sustain inflammation. Anaphylaxis can recur hours later without re-exposure (biphasic reaction), so patients are observed for several hours (often 6–12) after treatment. A mast cell tryptase taken 1–2 hours after the event confirms anaphylaxis.
  • Treatment: adrenaline 0.5 mg IM (0.5 mL of 1 in 1,000) into the anterolateral thigh in adults, repeat after 5 minutes if needed; airway, oxygen, IV fluids; antihistamines and steroids are second-line. A clear history of hives or swelling within minutes of amoxicillin is IgE allergy: avoid all penicillins.
  • Venom immunotherapy gives increasing doses of venom; it induces IgG4 "blocking" antibodies that intercept the allergen before it reaches IgE, plus regulatory T cells (IL-10, TGF-β) that damp the Th2 response.
  • Desensitisation: when penicillin is essential (syphilis in pregnancy with past anaphylaxis), graded oral desensitisation produces temporary tolerance. It works only for IgE-mediated allergy, never for SJS/TEN.
  • Variants to recognise:
ConditionMechanism
Oral allergy syndrome (lip itch with raw apple or carrot in hay fever)IgE to pollen proteins cross-reacts with heat-labile fruit proteins; cooked fruit is safe
Food-dependent exercise-induced anaphylaxis (wheat omega-5 gliadin)Exercise increases gut permeability and allergen absorption; food alone or exercise alone is tolerated
Chronic spontaneous urticariaIgG autoantibodies against FcεRI (or IgE) cross-link the receptor without allergen; linked with autoimmune thyroid disease
Systemic mastocytosisClonal mast cells with KIT D816V; persistently high baseline tryptase, urticaria pigmentosa (Darier sign), flushing, collapse with heat, alcohol or stings
Eosinophilic oesophagitisTh2 cytokines (IL-5, IL-13) recruit eosinophils; atopic young man, food bolus impaction, rings and furrows, over 15 eosinophils per high-power field
  • Angioedema without urticaria or itch is usually bradykinin, not histamine, so adrenaline, antihistamines and steroids barely work:
FeatureACE inhibitor angioedemaHereditary angioedema
CauseACE also breaks down bradykinin; inhibiting it lets bradykinin accumulateC1 esterase inhibitor deficiency (autosomal dominant)
ClueLisinopril, even after yearsFamily history, abdominal attacks, attacks after dental work
TestClinicalLow C4, normal C3
TreatmentStop the drug, protect the airwayC1 inhibitor concentrate or icatibant (bradykinin B2 receptor blocker); prophylaxis before procedures

Type II: antibody against a fixed antigen

  • ITP: IgG-coated platelets are removed by splenic macrophages through Fc receptors (extravascular, no complement lysis, so no haemoglobinuria or fibrinogen fall). IVIG works within days by blocking those Fc receptors.
  • ABO incompatible transfusion (usually a bedside identity error): preformed IgM anti-A or anti-B fix complement and cause intravascular haemolysis within minutes: fever, rigors, loin pain, red-brown urine, shock, DIC. The kidney is injured by free haemoglobin, hypotension and microthrombi causing acute tubular necrosis. Stop the transfusion immediately.
  • Haemolytic disease of the newborn (erythroblastosis fetalis): maternal IgG anti-D crosses the placenta and coats Rh-positive fetal red cells. A first sensitising pregnancy rarely affects the baby; the next one does.
  • Anti-D prophylaxis: given at 28 weeks (routine antenatal) and within 72 hours of delivering an Rh-positive baby, and after miscarriage, amniocentesis or abdominal trauma. The injected antibody coats and clears fetal red cells before the mother's B cells can respond, so she never makes her own anti-D.
  • Goodpasture syndrome: antibodies to the α3 chain of type IV collagen in glomerular and alveolar basement membranes: haemoptysis and crescentic GN with linear IgG.
  • Receptor antibodies: myasthenia (blocks acetylcholine receptors), Graves (stimulates TSH receptors). Hyperacute transplant rejection (minutes after reperfusion) is type II from preformed antibody. The direct Coombs test detects antibody on red cells.

Type III: immune complexes

  • Complexes formed with slight antigen excess are small enough to escape the liver and spleen but large enough to lodge in vessel walls; very large complexes are cleared and cause little harm.
  • They deposit where blood is filtered under high pressure or flow is turbulent: glomeruli, synovium, skin and small vessels, choroid plexus. The brain is protected by the blood–brain barrier.
  • Damage comes from complement and neutrophils: low C3 in active disease (SLE, PSGN, membranoproliferative GN, cryoglobulinaemia) and granular ("lumpy-bumpy") immunofluorescence.
  • Post-streptococcal GN: 1–3 weeks after a throat (or 3–6 weeks after skin) infection; cola urine, oedema, hypertension, low C3; electron microscopy shows subepithelial humps.
  • Serum sickness: 1–2 weeks after foreign protein (antivenom) or drugs: fever, rash, arthralgia, proteinuria. Arthus reaction: local necrotising reaction hours after injecting antigen into a person with high IgG (a booster given too soon).
  • Hypersensitivity pneumonitis (farmer's lung from mouldy hay, bird fancier's lung from pigeons): cough, fever and breathlessness 4–8 hours after exposure, better away from it. The acute reaction is type III (precipitating IgG, which shows exposure, not necessarily disease); chronic disease is type IV with lymphocytic interstitial inflammation and poorly formed granulomas.

Type IV: T cells

  • Mantoux test: intradermal tuberculin read at 48–72 hours as induration, the memory Th1 response. 5 mm or more is positive in HIV, immunosuppression or recent contacts (exclude active TB, then treat latent infection); 10 mm or more in other people.
  • False-negative Mantoux (anergy): miliary or overwhelming TB, malnutrition, advanced HIV, measles, steroids, sarcoidosis. It may turn positive after treatment and refeeding.
  • Contact dermatitis: haptens (nickel, hair dye, chromate) bind skin proteins, are presented by Langerhans cells, and elicit Th1 reactions; confirm with patch testing.
  • Granulomas: Th1 cells release IFN-γ, turning macrophages into epithelioid and giant cells (TB, leprosy, sarcoid, Crohn disease).
  • Stevens–Johnson syndrome and TEN (allopurinol, carbamazepine, sulfonamides, lamotrigine): drug-specific CD8 cytotoxic T cells kill keratinocytes (granulysin, Fas ligand), giving full-thickness epidermal necrosis with a sparse infiltrate, mucosal erosions and a positive Nikolsky sign. Over 30% detachment is TEN.

Transplant rejection

TypeTimingMechanism
HyperacuteMinutesPreformed antibodies (type II)
AcuteWeeks to monthsT cells (type IV) and antibodies; reversible
ChronicMonths to yearsIntimal thickening and fibrosis; irreversible

Remember Name the effector: IgE (I), antibody on a cell (II), floating complexes (III), T cells (IV).

Exam trap Myasthenia, Graves and haemolytic disease of the newborn are type II; SLE and PSGN are type III; contact dermatitis is type IV, not type I.

Exam trap Angioedema without itch or weals is bradykinin-mediated (ACE inhibitor or C1 inhibitor deficiency); adrenaline and antihistamines fail.

How FCPS asks about this

  • Erythroblastosis fetalis and transfusion reactions: type II; anti-D clears fetal cells before the mother responds; ABO kidney injury is from free haemoglobin and shock.
  • PSGN: type III, low C3, subepithelial humps; SLE spares the brain because complexes lodge in filtering vessels.
  • Anaphylaxis: IgE on mast cells; IM adrenaline 0.5 mg; observe for biphasic reaction; tryptase confirms.
  • Mantoux: type IV at 48–72 hours; 5 mm positive in HIV; zero in miliary TB is anergy.
  • Farmer's or pigeon breeder's lung: symptoms 4–8 hours after exposure; type III then IV.
  • SJS/TEN: CD8 T cells killing keratinocytes; venom immunotherapy works through IgG4 and Tregs.
  • Hereditary angioedema: C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency, low C4; icatibant or C1 inhibitor.

Test yourself on this topic

5 of the 89 questions in our bank on this topic. Choose an answer to see why every option is right or wrong.

Question 1Hard

A pregnant woman with early syphilis has a documented history of penicillin anaphylaxis. Benzathine penicillin is the only treatment that reliably protects the fetus. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

Question 2Medium

A 25-year-old man with asthma and eczema has had dysphagia for solids for a year and one episode of food impaction. Endoscopy shows rings and furrows with a normal pH study, and biopsies show more than 20 eosinophils per high-power field. Which of the following mechanisms underlies this condition?

Question 3Hard

Immune complexes in lupus damage kidneys, joints, skin and small vessels but rarely brain tissue. What best explains this distribution?

Question 4Medium

A positive Mantoux test produces an indurated swelling 48–72 hours after intradermal injection of tuberculin. Which hypersensitivity type and effector cells are involved?

Question 5Medium

Ten minutes into a transfusion given in error, a man has loin pain, fever and rigors, and his urine becomes red-brown. Over the next hours he becomes oliguric with a rising creatinine. What is the main mechanism of his kidney injury?

Practise all 89 questions on this topic

Where this sits in the CPSP syllabus

  • Medicine & Allied, Paper 2: Immunopathology, Hypersensitivity reactions types I-IV

Read next

Drug dose pages

Doses, cautions and practical tips for drugs in this chapter.