Hypersensitivity reactions
Hypersensitivity reactions types I to IV for FCPS: mechanisms and examples
Hypersensitivity types I to IV for FCPS Part 1: IgE and mast cells, antibodies against cells, immune complexes and T-cell reactions, with key diseases. Ask what does the damage and when it appears, and the type, test and treatment follow.
The four types (Gell and Coombs)
| Type | What does the damage | Timing | Examples |
|---|---|---|---|
| I: immediate | Allergen cross-links IgE on mast cells and basophils | Minutes; late phase 4–8 h | Anaphylaxis, asthma, hay fever, urticaria, food, drug and venom allergy |
| II: antibody against cells or receptors | IgG or IgM binds antigen fixed on a cell or tissue: complement lysis, phagocytosis, ADCC, or receptor blocking or stimulation | Minutes to days | ABO transfusion reaction, haemolytic disease of the newborn, autoimmune haemolysis, ITP, Goodpasture, acute rheumatic fever, pemphigus, myasthenia gravis, Graves disease |
| III: immune complex | Soluble antigen–antibody complexes deposit, fix complement, attract neutrophils | 1–3 weeks (Arthus: hours) | SLE, post-streptococcal GN, serum sickness, Arthus reaction, polyarteritis nodosa (HBV), cryoglobulinaemia, hypersensitivity pneumonitis (early) |
| IV: delayed, T-cell | CD4 Th1 cells activate macrophages, or CD8 cells kill directly | 48–72 h | Mantoux, contact dermatitis, granulomas (TB, sarcoid), acute cellular rejection, SJS/TEN, type 1 diabetes, multiple sclerosis |
- The order is Anaphylactic, Cytotoxic, immune Complex, Delayed. Complement fragments C3a and C5a (anaphylatoxins) degranulate mast cells and raise vascular permeability; C5a also attracts neutrophils.
Type I: IgE and mast cells
- Sensitisation: first exposure drives Th2 cells (IL-4, IL-13) to switch B cells to IgE, which coats mast cells by the high-affinity receptor FcεRI. IL-5 recruits eosinophils. On re-exposure, cross-linking releases histamine and tryptase (preformed), then leukotrienes and prostaglandins.
- Late phase: eosinophils and Th2 cytokines sustain inflammation. Anaphylaxis can recur hours later without re-exposure (biphasic reaction), so patients are observed for several hours (often 6–12) after treatment. A mast cell tryptase taken 1–2 hours after the event confirms anaphylaxis.
- Treatment: adrenaline 0.5 mg IM (0.5 mL of 1 in 1,000) into the anterolateral thigh in adults, repeat after 5 minutes if needed; airway, oxygen, IV fluids; antihistamines and steroids are second-line. A clear history of hives or swelling within minutes of amoxicillin is IgE allergy: avoid all penicillins.
- Venom immunotherapy gives increasing doses of venom; it induces IgG4 "blocking" antibodies that intercept the allergen before it reaches IgE, plus regulatory T cells (IL-10, TGF-β) that damp the Th2 response.
- Desensitisation: when penicillin is essential (syphilis in pregnancy with past anaphylaxis), graded oral desensitisation produces temporary tolerance. It works only for IgE-mediated allergy, never for SJS/TEN.
- Variants to recognise:
| Condition | Mechanism |
|---|---|
| Oral allergy syndrome (lip itch with raw apple or carrot in hay fever) | IgE to pollen proteins cross-reacts with heat-labile fruit proteins; cooked fruit is safe |
| Food-dependent exercise-induced anaphylaxis (wheat omega-5 gliadin) | Exercise increases gut permeability and allergen absorption; food alone or exercise alone is tolerated |
| Chronic spontaneous urticaria | IgG autoantibodies against FcεRI (or IgE) cross-link the receptor without allergen; linked with autoimmune thyroid disease |
| Systemic mastocytosis | Clonal mast cells with KIT D816V; persistently high baseline tryptase, urticaria pigmentosa (Darier sign), flushing, collapse with heat, alcohol or stings |
| Eosinophilic oesophagitis | Th2 cytokines (IL-5, IL-13) recruit eosinophils; atopic young man, food bolus impaction, rings and furrows, over 15 eosinophils per high-power field |
- Angioedema without urticaria or itch is usually bradykinin, not histamine, so adrenaline, antihistamines and steroids barely work:
| Feature | ACE inhibitor angioedema | Hereditary angioedema |
|---|---|---|
| Cause | ACE also breaks down bradykinin; inhibiting it lets bradykinin accumulate | C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency (autosomal dominant) |
| Clue | Lisinopril, even after years | Family history, abdominal attacks, attacks after dental work |
| Test | Clinical | Low C4, normal C3 |
| Treatment | Stop the drug, protect the airway | C1 inhibitor concentrate or icatibant (bradykinin B2 receptor blocker); prophylaxis before procedures |
Type II: antibody against a fixed antigen
- ITP: IgG-coated platelets are removed by splenic macrophages through Fc receptors (extravascular, no complement lysis, so no haemoglobinuria or fibrinogen fall). IVIG works within days by blocking those Fc receptors.
- ABO incompatible transfusion (usually a bedside identity error): preformed IgM anti-A or anti-B fix complement and cause intravascular haemolysis within minutes: fever, rigors, loin pain, red-brown urine, shock, DIC. The kidney is injured by free haemoglobin, hypotension and microthrombi causing acute tubular necrosis. Stop the transfusion immediately.
- Haemolytic disease of the newborn (erythroblastosis fetalis): maternal IgG anti-D crosses the placenta and coats Rh-positive fetal red cells. A first sensitising pregnancy rarely affects the baby; the next one does.
- Anti-D prophylaxis: given at 28 weeks (routine antenatal) and within 72 hours of delivering an Rh-positive baby, and after miscarriage, amniocentesis or abdominal trauma. The injected antibody coats and clears fetal red cells before the mother's B cells can respond, so she never makes her own anti-D.
- Goodpasture syndrome: antibodies to the α3 chain of type IV collagen in glomerular and alveolar basement membranes: haemoptysis and crescentic GN with linear IgG.
- Receptor antibodies: myasthenia (blocks acetylcholine receptors), Graves (stimulates TSH receptors). Hyperacute transplant rejection (minutes after reperfusion) is type II from preformed antibody. The direct Coombs test detects antibody on red cells.
Type III: immune complexes
- Complexes formed with slight antigen excess are small enough to escape the liver and spleen but large enough to lodge in vessel walls; very large complexes are cleared and cause little harm.
- They deposit where blood is filtered under high pressure or flow is turbulent: glomeruli, synovium, skin and small vessels, choroid plexus. The brain is protected by the blood–brain barrier.
- Damage comes from complement and neutrophils: low C3 in active disease (SLE, PSGN, membranoproliferative GN, cryoglobulinaemia) and granular ("lumpy-bumpy") immunofluorescence.
- Post-streptococcal GN: 1–3 weeks after a throat (or 3–6 weeks after skin) infection; cola urine, oedema, hypertension, low C3; electron microscopy shows subepithelial humps.
- Serum sickness: 1–2 weeks after foreign protein (antivenom) or drugs: fever, rash, arthralgia, proteinuria. Arthus reaction: local necrotising reaction hours after injecting antigen into a person with high IgG (a booster given too soon).
- Hypersensitivity pneumonitis (farmer's lung from mouldy hay, bird fancier's lung from pigeons): cough, fever and breathlessness 4–8 hours after exposure, better away from it. The acute reaction is type III (precipitating IgG, which shows exposure, not necessarily disease); chronic disease is type IV with lymphocytic interstitial inflammation and poorly formed granulomas.
Type IV: T cells
- Mantoux test: intradermal tuberculin read at 48–72 hours as induration, the memory Th1 response. 5 mm or more is positive in HIV, immunosuppression or recent contacts (exclude active TB, then treat latent infection); 10 mm or more in other people.
- False-negative Mantoux (anergy): miliary or overwhelming TB, malnutrition, advanced HIV, measles, steroids, sarcoidosis. It may turn positive after treatment and refeeding.
- Contact dermatitis: haptens (nickel, hair dye, chromate) bind skin proteins, are presented by Langerhans cells, and elicit Th1 reactions; confirm with patch testing.
- Granulomas: Th1 cells release IFN-γ, turning macrophages into epithelioid and giant cells (TB, leprosy, sarcoid, Crohn disease).
- Stevens–Johnson syndrome and TEN (allopurinol, carbamazepine, sulfonamides, lamotrigine): drug-specific CD8 cytotoxic T cells kill keratinocytes (granulysin, Fas ligand), giving full-thickness epidermal necrosis with a sparse infiltrate, mucosal erosions and a positive Nikolsky sign. Over 30% detachment is TEN.
Transplant rejection
| Type | Timing | Mechanism |
|---|---|---|
| Hyperacute | Minutes | Preformed antibodies (type II) |
| Acute | Weeks to months | T cells (type IV) and antibodies; reversible |
| Chronic | Months to years | Intimal thickening and fibrosis; irreversible |
Remember Name the effector: IgE (I), antibody on a cell (II), floating complexes (III), T cells (IV).
Exam trap Myasthenia, Graves and haemolytic disease of the newborn are type II; SLE and PSGN are type III; contact dermatitis is type IV, not type I.
Exam trap Angioedema without itch or weals is bradykinin-mediated (ACE inhibitor or C1 inhibitor deficiency); adrenaline and antihistamines fail.
How FCPS asks about this
- Erythroblastosis fetalis and transfusion reactions: type II; anti-D clears fetal cells before the mother responds; ABO kidney injury is from free haemoglobin and shock.
- PSGN: type III, low C3, subepithelial humps; SLE spares the brain because complexes lodge in filtering vessels.
- Anaphylaxis: IgE on mast cells; IM adrenaline 0.5 mg; observe for biphasic reaction; tryptase confirms.
- Mantoux: type IV at 48–72 hours; 5 mm positive in HIV; zero in miliary TB is anergy.
- Farmer's or pigeon breeder's lung: symptoms 4–8 hours after exposure; type III then IV.
- SJS/TEN: CD8 T cells killing keratinocytes; venom immunotherapy works through IgG4 and Tregs.
- Hereditary angioedema: C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency, low C4; icatibant or C1 inhibitor.
Test yourself on this topic
5 of the 89 questions in our bank on this topic. Choose an answer to see why every option is right or wrong.
A pregnant woman with early syphilis has a documented history of penicillin anaphylaxis. Benzathine penicillin is the only treatment that reliably protects the fetus. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Answer: Graded oral desensitisation, then penicillin
Giving tiny, rapidly escalating doses of penicillin under close supervision causes controlled, sub-threshold mast cell activation that leaves the cells unresponsive, so a full dose can then be given safely. The tolerance is temporary, lasting only while the drug is continued, so it must be repeated if treatment is interrupted. In pregnancy, doxycycline is contraindicated and alternatives such as azithromycin do not reliably treat the fetus, so desensitisation is the recommended course. Steroid pre-treatment does not prevent IgE-mediated anaphylaxis.
Drug desensitisation
- Tiny escalating doses under supervision
- Mast cells become unresponsive
- Tolerance lasts only while dosing
- Used when the drug is essential
Remember Desensitisation buys tolerance only for this course.
Exam trap Desensitisation is for IgE-mediated allergy, not for severe delayed reactions such as toxic epidermal necrolysis.
Why the other options are wrong
- Give doxycycline instead of penicillin Tetracyclines are contraindicated in pregnancy.
- Give penicillin with steroid pre-treatment Pre-treatment does not prevent IgE-mediated anaphylaxis.
- Delay treatment until after delivery Untreated syphilis in pregnancy harms the fetus.
- Give azithromycin as a single dose Does not reliably cure fetal infection; resistance also occurs.
A 25-year-old man with asthma and eczema has had dysphagia for solids for a year and one episode of food impaction. Endoscopy shows rings and furrows with a normal pH study, and biopsies show more than 20 eosinophils per high-power field. Which of the following mechanisms underlies this condition?
Answer: Th2 cytokines recruiting eosinophils to the mucosa
Eosinophilic oesophagitis is a chronic food antigen-driven disease in atopic people. Th2 cytokines, chiefly interleukin-5 and interleukin-13, with the epithelial alarmin thymic stromal lymphopoietin, recruit eosinophils into the squamous mucosa and drive remodelling with fibrosis, producing rings, furrows and strictures. It is a chronic Th2-mediated, largely non-IgE food-antigen disease rather than an acid problem; proton pump inhibitors, swallowed topical steroids, elimination diets and dupilumab (which blocks interleukin-4 and interleukin-13 signalling) are all used.
Eosinophilic oesophagitis
- Atopic patient, food antigens
- IL-5 and IL-13: eosinophils recruited
- Rings and furrows, > 15 eos/hpf
- Treat: topical steroid, diet, dupilumab
Remember Dysphagia with food impaction in an atopic young adult: biopsy it.
Exam trap Biopsies must be taken even when the oesophagus looks normal, because changes can be subtle.
Why the other options are wrong
- Acid reflux damaging the squamous mucosa The pH study is normal and the picture is not that of reflux.
- IgG4 immune complexes in the oesophageal wall IgG4 disease causes fibrosis in other organs, not this pattern.
- Cytotoxic T cells destroying the epithelium Cytotoxic T cells are not the main mechanism here.
- Autoantibody against oesophageal smooth muscle No such autoantibody disease causes these biopsy changes.
Immune complexes in lupus damage kidneys, joints, skin and small vessels but rarely brain tissue. What best explains this distribution?
Answer: Deposition favours high-pressure filtering vessels
Circulating immune complexes of intermediate size are deposited where plasma is filtered under pressure and where turbulence occurs: glomerular capillaries, synovial vessels, the choroid plexus, skin capillaries and the walls of small arteries. There they fix complement, which attracts neutrophils that release enzymes and reactive oxygen species, producing fibrinoid necrosis and vasculitis. The brain parenchyma is protected by tight endothelial junctions, so the choroid plexus is the main site affected within the skull.
Immune complex disease
- Deposits where filtration pressure is high
- Kidney, joints, skin, small vessels
- Complement draws neutrophils
- Result: fibrinoid necrosis, vasculitis
Remember Follow the filtration pressure to find the lesions.
Exam trap Very large complexes are cleared by the liver and spleen, so they cause little tissue damage.
Why the other options are wrong
- Complexes are too large to leave capillaries Complexes do leave capillaries; size determines where they lodge.
- Only these tissues express complement receptors Complement receptors are widespread, not restricted to these tissues.
- Brain tissue lacks any blood supply at risk The brain is well perfused but protected by its tight barrier.
- Complexes bind only to type I collagen Complexes do not bind specifically to collagen.
A positive Mantoux test produces an indurated swelling 48–72 hours after intradermal injection of tuberculin. Which hypersensitivity type and effector cells are involved?
Answer: Type IV; Th1 cells, macrophages
Type IV hypersensitivity is cell-mediated, not antibody-mediated, and takes 48–72 hours: antigen-presenting cells present antigen to memory CD4 Th1 cells, which release IFN-gamma and other cytokines that recruit and activate macrophages, causing induration. Examples: tuberculin reaction, contact dermatitis (nickel, poison ivy; CD8 cells also contribute), granulomas (TB, sarcoidosis), and transplant rejection. Type I is immediate (minutes) and IgE-mediated; type II involves antibodies against fixed antigens (haemolytic transfusion reaction, Goodpasture, Graves); type III involves immune complexes deposited in tissues (serum sickness, SLE, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, Arthus reaction at 4–8 hours).
Hypersensitivity
- I: IgE, mast cells, minutes (anaphylaxis)
- II: antibody vs cell surface (Goodpasture, Graves)
- III: immune complexes (SLE, serum sickness)
- IV: T cells, 48–72 h (Mantoux, contact dermatitis)
Remember ACID: Anaphylactic, Cytotoxic, Immune complex, Delayed.
Why the other options are wrong
- Type I; IgE, mast cells Immediate wheal and flare.
- Type II; IgG, complement Cytotoxic antibody reactions.
- Type III; immune complexes Arthus reaction appears in hours.
- Type I; eosinophils only Not correct.
Ten minutes into a transfusion given in error, a man has loin pain, fever and rigors, and his urine becomes red-brown. Over the next hours he becomes oliguric with a rising creatinine. What is the main mechanism of his kidney injury?
Answer: Free haemoglobin and hypotension injure tubules
Preformed IgM anti-A or anti-B binds donor red cells and activates complement to completion, so the cells burst inside the vessels. Free haemoglobin scavenges nitric oxide and precipitates in the tubules, while complement activation causes hypotension and renal vasoconstriction, and cytokine release may trigger disseminated intravascular coagulation. The combination of pigment toxicity and poor perfusion produces acute tubular necrosis. Treatment is to stop the transfusion at once and support the circulation with generous fluids to maintain urine output.
Acute haemolytic reaction
- IgM anti-A or anti-B, complement to completion
- Intravascular haemolysis
- Free haemoglobin plus hypotension
- Acute tubular necrosis; stop transfusion
Remember Loin pain and red urine during transfusion: stop at once.
Exam trap The commonest cause is a clerical error at the bedside, so always check the identity and label.
Why the other options are wrong
- Antibody binds directly to glomerular antigens The antibody is directed at red cells, not kidney tissue.
- Donor lymphocytes attack the renal interstitium Donor lymphocyte attack is graft-versus-host disease, not this reaction.
- Immune complexes block glomerular capillaries This reaction does not form immune complexes.
- Potassium from lysed cells poisons the tubules Hyperkalaemia is dangerous to the heart, not to the tubules.
Where this sits in the CPSP syllabus
- Medicine & Allied, Paper 2: Immunopathology, Hypersensitivity reactions types I-IV
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