Leukaemia and lymphoma
Leukaemia, Lymphoma, Myeloma, Myeloproliferative Neoplasms and the Spleen
Acute and chronic leukaemias, MDS, Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphoma, myeloma, myeloproliferative neoplasms, haematological emergencies and the spleen. Built around the genetic hallmarks, blood film clues and emergency management that FCPS questions test.
One of the most tested topics in past papers
Sorting blood cancers
| Group | Cell of origin | Examples |
|---|---|---|
| Acute leukaemias | Immature blasts (20% or more in marrow) | AML, ALL |
| Chronic leukaemias | Mature cells | CML, CLL, hairy cell leukaemia |
| Lymphomas | Lymphoid cells in nodes and tissues | Hodgkin, non-Hodgkin |
| Plasma cell neoplasms | Plasma cells | Myeloma, MGUS, plasmacytoma, Waldenström |
| Myeloproliferative neoplasms | Mature myeloid cells | CML, polycythaemia vera, essential thrombocythaemia, myelofibrosis |
- Acute leukaemia presents with marrow failure: anaemia, infections from neutropenia, bleeding from low platelets (petechiae, epistaxis, bleeding gums), plus bone pain and infiltration (gum hypertrophy in monocytic AML).
- Diagnosis: a bone marrow aspirate and trephine biopsy confirms leukaemia, with flow cytometry and cytogenetics. Lymphoma needs an excision biopsy of a whole node (architecture matters; FNA is not enough). Leukaemia is the commonest cancer after radiation exposure and the commonest childhood cancer.
Acute leukaemias
| Feature | ALL | AML |
|---|---|---|
| Age | Children (peak 2–5 years) | Adults (median over 65) |
| Markers | TdT, CD10, CD19 (B), CD3 (T) | Myeloperoxidase, Auer rods, CD13, CD33 |
| Associations | Down syndrome; CNS and testis are sanctuary sites | Prior chemotherapy, MDS, benzene, radiation, Down syndrome |
| Good prognosis | t(12;21), hyperdiploidy, age 2–10 | t(15;17), t(8;21), inv(16) |
| Poor prognosis | t(9;22), infants, adults | Complex karyotype |
- Acute promyelocytic leukaemia: t(15;17), PML–RARA; faggot cells full of Auer rods; presents with DIC; treated with all-trans retinoic acid plus arsenic trioxide, which make promyelocytes mature. Differentiation syndrome a few days into treatment: fever, breathlessness, weight gain, pulmonary infiltrates, effusions, rising WBC and renal impairment; give dexamethasone at once.
- T-lymphoblastic lymphoma/leukaemia: adolescent boys with a large anterior mediastinal mass, stridor when lying flat; avoid supine general anaesthesia.
- Testicular relapse: painless firm testicular enlargement after ALL treatment, even with a normal blood count, because the blood–testis barrier shields blasts from chemotherapy.
- Myeloid sarcoma (chloroma): a mass of myeloblasts outside the marrow, often orbital in children, turning green in air (MPO); it counts as AML.
- FAB L3 ALL is mature B-cell (Burkitt) leukaemia with t(8;14).
Myelodysplastic syndrome
- Clonal, ineffective haematopoiesis in older adults: pancytopenia with macrocytosis and normal B12 and folate, bilobed hypogranular neutrophils (pseudo-Pelger), ring sideroblasts, hypercellular marrow with under 20% blasts. It can progress to AML.
Chronic leukaemias
- CML: t(9;22), Philadelphia chromosome, BCR–ABL tyrosine kinase. Very high WBC with myeloid cells at every stage, basophilia, massive splenomegaly, low leucocyte alkaline phosphatase. BCR–ABL testing confirms it. Imatinib blocks the kinase; response is tracked by quantitative PCR for BCR–ABL transcripts, because a normal count does not mean the clone has gone. Untreated, it enters blast crisis.
- CLL: commonest leukaemia of older adults; small mature B cells (CD5, CD19, CD20, CD23), smudge cells. Often found by chance with lymphocytosis and small nodes: early asymptomatic disease is managed by watch and wait. Complications: warm autoimmune haemolysis, hypogammaglobulinaemia and infections (give non-live vaccines early), Richter transformation. Treatment when needed: BTK inhibitors, venetoclax.
- Hairy cell leukaemia: middle-aged men; splenomegaly, pancytopenia with monocytopenia, dry tap; TRAP-positive, BRAF V600E; cladribine.
Lymphomas
| Feature | Hodgkin lymphoma | Non-Hodgkin lymphoma |
|---|---|---|
| Cell | Reed–Sternberg (CD15, CD30), owl-eye nuclei, in reactive background | Monoclonal B (most) or T cells |
| Spread | Contiguous node groups | Skips; often extranodal |
| Age | Young adults and over 55 | Mostly older adults |
| Clues | Painless neck nodes, B symptoms, pruritus, alcohol-induced node pain (uncommon but characteristic) | Varies by type |
- Hodgkin subtypes: nodular sclerosis (commonest; young women; mediastinal mass; lacunar cells), mixed cellularity (EBV), lymphocyte-rich (best prognosis), lymphocyte-depleted (worst; HIV).
| NHL type | Hallmark |
|---|---|
| Diffuse large B-cell | Commonest NHL in adults; aggressive, curable with R-CHOP |
| Follicular | t(14;18), BCL2 overexpression; indolent |
| Burkitt | t(8;14), MYC; starry sky; endemic form in African children (jaw, EBV in nearly all); tumour lysis risk |
| Mantle cell | t(11;14), cyclin D1; CD5+ |
| Gastric MALT | Linked to H. pylori; early disease regresses after eradication; stomach is the commonest extranodal site |
| Enteropathy-associated T-cell | Long-standing coeliac disease; CD3+ T cells; jejunal ulcer, perforation |
| Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder | EBV-driven B-cell lymphoma after transplant |
| Mycosis fungoides | Skin CD4 T cells; Sézary syndrome in blood |
| Adult T-cell leukaemia/lymphoma | HTLV-1; hypercalcaemia |
- B symptoms: fever over 38 °C, drenching sweats, over 10% weight loss in 6 months. Ann Arbor staging: I one region, II two or more on one side of the diaphragm, III both sides, IV extranodal.
Plasma cell disorders
- Multiple myeloma: monoclonal plasma cells making IgG (commonest), IgA or light chains only. Hypercalcaemia, renal failure (light-chain cast nephropathy), anaemia, bone lesions (punched-out lytic lesions, fractures; bone scan often normal because osteoblasts are suppressed). Rouleaux, very high ESR, Bence Jones proteinuria.
- Infections are frequent despite high total globulin because the normal polyclonal antibodies are suppressed (immunoparesis).
- Urine dipstick detects albumin, not free light chains, so heavy light-chain proteinuria can give a negative dipstick; use urine electrophoresis and immunofixation.
- AL amyloidosis complicates myeloma: macroglossia, periorbital purpura after coughing, nephrotic syndrome, and restrictive cardiomyopathy with thick walls but low-voltage ECG; Congo red shows apple-green birefringence.
- MGUS: small paraprotein, under 10% marrow plasma cells, no organ damage; about 1% a year progress. Solitary plasmacytoma: one lesion with normal marrow and no CRAB; radiotherapy; many later become myeloma.
- Waldenström macroglobulinaemia: IgM, hyperviscosity (visual upset, headache, bleeding), nodes, no lytic lesions; plasmapheresis.
Myeloproliferative neoplasms and polycythaemia
| Disorder | Mutation | Key features |
|---|---|---|
| Polycythaemia vera | JAK2 V617F (about 95%) | Aquagenic pruritus, plethora, splenomegaly, thrombosis (Budd–Chiari), low EPO; venesection, aspirin, hydroxycarbamide |
| Essential thrombocythaemia | JAK2, CALR, MPL | Very high platelets; thrombosis and bleeding; erythromelalgia |
| Primary myelofibrosis | JAK2, CALR, MPL | Dry tap, teardrop cells, leucoerythroblastic film, massive spleen |
- Secondary polycythaemia comes from chronic hypoxia (high altitude, as in soldiers returning from Siachen, COPD, cyanotic heart disease) or EPO-secreting tumours: EPO is high and the spleen is normal.
- Gout is common in myeloproliferative disease because high cell turnover releases purines, raising urate.
Reactive white cell changes
- Infection: neutrophilia with band forms, toxic granulation and Döhle bodies (left shift): marrow releasing immature neutrophils. Steroids raise neutrophils by demargination without a left shift.
- Leukaemoid reaction (very high WBC in severe infection) has a high LAP score, unlike CML.
- Marked lymphocytosis in children: pertussis (very high counts in infants predict severe disease).
- Infectious mononucleosis (EBV): fever, exudative tonsillitis, posterior cervical nodes, splenomegaly, atypical lymphocytes; amoxicillin causes a widespread rash; avoid contact sports for several weeks because the spleen can rupture.
- Langerhans cell histiocytosis: children with punched-out skull lesions, scaly scalp rash, otitis; cells are CD1a and S100 positive with Birbeck granules (rod or tennis-racket shaped).
Haematological emergencies
- Neutropenic sepsis (fever with neutrophils under 0.5 × 10⁹/L): IV broad-spectrum antibiotics within 1 hour, even if the patient looks well; avoid rectal examination. G-CSF (filgrastim) speeds recovery and commonly causes bone pain; rarely splenic rupture.
- Leucostasis: very high blast counts (often over 100 × 10⁹/L, mostly AML) plug small vessels: headache, confusion, blurred vision, retinal haemorrhages, hypoxia and infiltrates. Reduce the count urgently (hydroxycarbamide, leukapheresis, chemotherapy) and avoid red cell transfusion, which raises viscosity. Blasts consume oxygen in an arterial blood sample (leucocyte larceny), giving a falsely low PaO₂; pulse oximetry is not affected.
- Tumour lysis syndrome (Burkitt, ALL, high-count AML): high potassium, phosphate and urate, low calcium, acute kidney injury. Tetany occurs because phosphate precipitates with calcium; avoid calcium in asymptomatic patients. Prevent with hydration and allopurinol or rasburicase.
- Pseudohyperkalaemia: in very high white counts (CLL), fragile cells leak potassium during clotting or pneumatic-tube transport; the ECG is normal and a carefully handled heparinised sample is normal.
- Myeloma hypercalcaemia: first IV 0.9% saline, then a bisphosphonate (dose for renal function).
- Spinal cord compression (back pain, leg weakness, sensory level): dexamethasone and urgent MRI of the whole spine, then radiotherapy or surgery.
The spleen
- White pulp: the periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS) holds T cells; follicles hold B cells; the marginal zone mounts rapid responses to polysaccharide capsules. Red pulp filters old or damaged red cells.
- Splenic rupture: the commonly injured solid organ in blunt trauma, especially with left lower rib fractures. Left upper quadrant pain referred to the left shoulder tip (Kehr sign) because blood irritates the diaphragm, supplied by the phrenic nerve (C3–C5). A haemodynamically stable patient, even with a grade III laceration, is managed non-operatively with monitoring (angioembolisation if needed); instability needs splenectomy.
- Delayed rupture of a subcapsular haematoma can occur days to weeks later. An acutely enlarged spleen in malaria or infectious mononucleosis can rupture with little or no trauma.
- After splenectomy: reactive thrombocytosis peaking in the first one to two weeks; Howell–Jolly bodies and target cells on the film. If ITP relapses and Howell–Jolly bodies are absent, suspect an accessory spleen. Pancreatic tail injury can cause a fistula or subphrenic collection.
- Overwhelming post-splenectomy infection, most often Streptococcus pneumoniae, causes rapid septic shock. Vaccinate against pneumococcus, meningococcus and Haemophilus (2 weeks before elective surgery or 2 weeks after emergency surgery), give prophylactic penicillin and a standby antibiotic.
Remember CML: Philadelphia, basophils, low LAP. CLL: smudge cells, CD5. APL: t(15;17), DIC, ATRA.
Exam trap A stable patient with splenic laceration is observed, not operated on; shoulder tip pain with shock days after a fall suggests delayed rupture.
How FCPS asks about this
- Myeloid cells at all stages, basophilia, huge spleen: CML; confirm with BCR–ABL; monitor with quantitative PCR.
- Bleeding gums, petechiae and blasts: acute leukaemia; confirm with bone marrow aspirate and biopsy.
- Asymptomatic lymphocytosis with smudge cells: CLL; watch and wait.
- ATRA-treated APL with fever, infiltrates and weight gain: differentiation syndrome; dexamethasone.
- Myeloma with infections despite high globulin: suppressed normal immunoglobulins; negative dipstick because it misses light chains.
- WBC 180 with confusion and hypoxia: leucostasis; tetany after induction is phosphate precipitating calcium.
- Septic shock months after splenectomy: Streptococcus pneumoniae; absent Howell–Jolly bodies after splenectomy suggest an accessory spleen.
Test yourself on this topic
5 of the 194 questions in our bank on this topic. Choose an answer to see why every option is right or wrong.
A 3-year-old has a painful swelling of the skull, otitis externa and a scaly scalp rash. X-ray shows a punched-out lytic skull lesion. Biopsy shows cells that are CD1a and S100 positive, and electron microscopy shows rod-shaped cytoplasmic granules. What is the diagnosis?
Answer: Langerhans cell histiocytosis
Langerhans cell histiocytosis is a clonal proliferation of cells resembling Langerhans cells (the antigen-presenting dendritic cells of the skin), most often driven by BRAF V600E mutations. It ranges from a single lytic bone lesion (previously eosinophilic granuloma), usually in the skull, to multisystem disease in young children with skin rash (seborrhoeic-like), lytic bones, diabetes insipidus from pituitary involvement, exophthalmos, hepatosplenomegaly and marrow failure. The cells are CD1a, S100 and langerin (CD207) positive, and contain Birbeck granules, tennis-racket-shaped organelles on electron microscopy. Isolated bone lesions may heal after curettage or steroid injection; multisystem disease needs chemotherapy.
Langerhans cell histiocytosis
- CD1a, S100, langerin (CD207) positive
- Birbeck granules (tennis-racket)
- Lytic skull lesions, scalp rash, diabetes insipidus
- Often BRAF V600E
Remember Child, punched-out skull lesion, CD1a: Langerhans cell histiocytosis.
Exam trap Birbeck granules and CD1a are the pair to remember; S100 alone is non-specific.
Why the other options are wrong
- Multiple myeloma Myeloma is a disease of older adults.
- Ewing sarcoma Ewing sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour, CD99 positive, usually in long bones.
- Neuroblastoma metastasis Neuroblastoma metastases are positive for neural markers, not CD1a with Birbeck granules.
- Osteomyelitis Osteomyelitis would show inflammatory cells and organisms, not CD1a-positive histiocytes.
A 7-year-old African boy has a rapidly enlarging jaw mass. Histology shows sheets of medium-sized lymphocytes with scattered pale macrophages (starry-sky pattern) and a very high proliferation index. Which genetic change is typical?
Answer: t(8;14), MYC
Burkitt lymphoma is a highly aggressive B-cell lymphoma with MYC translocation, usually t(8;14) to the immunoglobulin heavy chain locus (or t(2;8), t(8;22)). The endemic African form involves the jaw and is associated with EBV and malaria; the sporadic form presents with abdominal (ileocaecal) masses; an immunodeficiency form occurs in HIV. 'Starry sky': tingible-body macrophages among sheets of tumour cells; Ki-67 near 100%. It responds to intensive chemotherapy but risks tumour lysis syndrome. t(14;18): follicular lymphoma; t(11;14): mantle cell; t(9;22): CML; t(15;17): APML.
Burkitt lymphoma
- t(8;14) → MYC
- Starry sky; Ki-67 ~100%
- Endemic: jaw, EBV, malaria; sporadic: ileocaecal
- Risk: tumour lysis syndrome
Remember Eight-fourteen, MYC on the jaw.
Why the other options are wrong
- t(14;18), BCL2 Follicular lymphoma.
- t(9;22), BCR-ABL CML and some ALL.
- t(11;14), cyclin D1 Mantle cell lymphoma.
- t(15;17), PML-RARA Acute promyelocytic leukaemia.
A 64-year-old man has weight loss and a spleen reaching his umbilicus. The film shows teardrop red cells with nucleated red cells and myelocytes. Marrow aspiration is a dry tap, and the trephine shows dense reticulin fibrosis. A JAK2 mutation is found. What is the diagnosis?
Answer: Primary myelofibrosis
Primary myelofibrosis is a myeloproliferative neoplasm in which clonal megakaryocytes release fibroblast growth factors, causing marrow fibrosis. Haematopoiesis moves to the spleen and liver, producing massive splenomegaly and a leucoerythroblastic film with teardrop cells. Aspiration is often a dry tap, so a trephine is needed. About half carry JAK2 V617F, and most others have CALR or MPL mutations.
Myelofibrosis
- Teardrop cells, leucoerythroblastic film
- Dry tap, reticulin fibrosis
- Massive spleen, extramedullary haematopoiesis
- JAK2, CALR or MPL
Remember Teardrops, dry tap, giant spleen.
Exam trap A dry tap is not diagnostic; it also occurs in hairy cell leukaemia and marrow infiltration.
Why the other options are wrong
- Hairy cell leukaemia Hairy cell leukaemia also gives a dry tap, but with pancytopenia, few monocytes and hairy B cells, not JAK2.
- Chronic myeloid leukaemia CML has a very high white count and the BCR-ABL fusion.
- Polycythaemia vera PV raises haemoglobin and does not usually cause dense fibrosis at presentation.
- Visceral leishmaniasis Leishmaniasis shows LD bodies, not reticulin fibrosis.
A 66-year-old man with back pain, anaemia and a raised creatinine has a negative urine dipstick for protein. A 24-hour urine collection, however, contains 3 g of protein. What explains the difference?
Answer: Dipstick detects albumin, not free light chains
In myeloma, malignant plasma cells make excess free light chains (Bence Jones protein). They are small enough to be filtered at the glomerulus and appear in urine. The common urine dipstick is sensitive mainly to albumin and detects light chains poorly, so it can be negative despite heavy light-chain proteinuria. Urine electrophoresis with immunofixation, or serum free light chain assay, is needed to identify them.
Bence Jones protein
- Free light chains in urine
- Filtered at the glomerulus
- Dipstick sees albumin mainly
- Use urine electrophoresis or serum free light chains
Remember Negative dipstick does not exclude myeloma.
Exam trap Bence Jones protein precipitates on heating to about 50 °C and redissolves near boiling, an old test now replaced by immunofixation.
Why the other options are wrong
- The dipstick was read too early Timing would not explain 3 g of missed protein.
- Light chains are destroyed by acid urine Light chains are stable in urine.
- The collection was contaminated with blood Blood contamination would make the dipstick positive.
- Heavy chains are too large to be detected Heavy chains are not the protein in the urine here.
A 2-year-old with Down syndrome has pallor, petechiae and hepatomegaly. Platelets are 25 × 10⁹/L. Marrow aspiration is difficult because of fibrosis, and the blasts express the platelet glycoproteins CD41 and CD61. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Acute megakaryoblastic leukaemia
Children with Down syndrome have a much higher risk of leukaemia. Before the age of 4, acute megakaryoblastic leukaemia (formerly AML M7) is especially common and is linked to acquired GATA1 mutations; it may follow a transient abnormal myelopoiesis in the newborn. The blasts carry megakaryocyte markers CD41 and CD61, and they cause marrow fibrosis. It responds well to chemotherapy in these children.
Down syndrome leukaemia
- Under 4: megakaryoblastic AML
- GATA1 mutation
- Blasts CD41, CD61
- Marrow fibrosis
Remember Down syndrome toddler with blasts: think M7.
Exam trap Children with Down syndrome are very sensitive to chemotherapy toxicity, so doses are adjusted.
Why the other options are wrong
- Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia ALL is also more common in Down syndrome, but its blasts lack CD41 and CD61.
- Acute promyelocytic leukaemia APL presents with DIC and promyelocytes with Auer rods.
- Juvenile myelomonocytic leukaemia JMML is linked to neurofibromatosis and Noonan syndrome, with monocytosis.
- Chronic myeloid leukaemia CML is rare in toddlers and shows maturing cells, not blasts.
Where this sits in the CPSP syllabus
- Surgery & Allied, Paper 2: Haematology, White cell disorders: reactive and neoplastic; leukaemias
- Surgery & Allied, Paper 2: Haematology, Lymphoid pathology: lymphomas, myeloma; spleen
- Medicine & Allied, Paper 2: Haematopoietic and lymphoid disorders, Leukaemias, lymphomas, myeloma and myeloproliferative disease
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