NRE Step 1 Pharmacology MCQs
12 sample questions from the 202 Pharmacology questions in NRE-1 Prep. Choose an answer to see why it is right and why each other option is wrong.
Practise all 202 Pharmacology questions in NRE-1 Prep
Sample Pharmacology questions
1. A 55-year-old man with hypertension was started on lisinopril 6 weeks ago. He now has a persistent dry, tickly cough. Chest examination and X-ray are normal. What is the mechanism of the cough?
Answer: Accumulation of bradykinin. ACE also breaks down bradykinin. Inhibiting ACE lets bradykinin (and substance P) build up in the airway, causing a dry cough in up to 1 in 10 patients — the same mechanism underlies angioedema. Switch to an angiotensin receptor blocker such as losartan, which does not affect bradykinin.
- Accumulation of angiotensin II: ACE inhibitors reduce angiotensin II formation, not increase it.
- Beta-receptor blockade in the airways: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, not a beta-blocker, so it does not block airway beta-receptors.
- Hypokalaemia: ACE inhibitors tend to raise potassium, and hypokalaemia does not cause cough.
2. A 30-year-old woman who is 24 weeks pregnant has a BP of 152/102 mmHg on two occasions with no proteinuria. Which is the first-line antihypertensive?
Answer: Labetalol. Labetalol (an alpha- and beta-blocker) is first-line for hypertension in pregnancy, with nifedipine and methyldopa as alternatives. ACE inhibitors and ARBs are contraindicated because they cause fetal renal damage, oligohydramnios and skull defects. Atenolol is associated with fetal growth restriction.
- Ramipril: Fetotoxic — contraindicated in pregnancy.
- Losartan: Fetotoxic — contraindicated in pregnancy.
- Atenolol: Atenolol is linked to fetal growth restriction, so labetalol, nifedipine or methyldopa are preferred in pregnancy.
3. An adult with asthma uses a salbutamol inhaler 4 times a week and wakes at night with wheeze. According to current GINA guidance, what should be started?
Answer: Low-dose ICS–formoterol. Uncontrolled asthma (reliever ≥ 3 times a week or night waking) needs inhaled corticosteroid. GINA (2024) prefers low-dose ICS–formoterol as an anti-inflammatory reliever, stepping up to maintenance and reliever therapy (MART). LABA alone increases asthma deaths. Oral steroids are for exacerbations or severe disease.
- More frequent salbutamol: Over-reliance on SABA is linked to deaths.
- LABA alone: LABA without an inhaled steroid increases asthma deaths and must never be used alone.
- Montelukast alone: An add-on, not the preferred step.
4. A patient with treatment-resistant schizophrenia is started on clozapine. Which monitoring is mandatory?
Answer: Full blood count. Clozapine is the only antipsychotic proven for treatment-resistant schizophrenia (after two failed antipsychotics). It can cause agranulocytosis, so FBC is monitored weekly for 18 weeks, then fortnightly, then monthly. Other side effects: myocarditis (early), constipation (can be fatal ileus), hypersalivation, weight gain, diabetes, seizures. Smoking changes its levels (stopping smoking raises levels).
- Serum lithium levels: Lithium levels are monitored for lithium, not clozapine.
- Thyroid function tests: Thyroid function is not the main risk with clozapine; agranulocytosis is.
- ECG for QT interval: Myocarditis matters too, but FBC monitoring is mandatory.
Practise all 202 Pharmacology questions
5. A patient on atorvastatin develops muscle aches; CK is 3× the upper limit. Which factors increase statin myopathy risk?
Answer: Fibrates, macrolides, hypothyroidism. Statin-associated muscle symptoms range from myalgia (normal CK) to myositis and rhabdomyolysis (rare). Risk factors: high dose, drug interactions (CYP3A4 inhibitors with simvastatin/atorvastatin — macrolides, azoles, HIV protease inhibitors, amiodarone, diltiazem/verapamil, grapefruit; gemfibrozil; ciclosporin), hypothyroidism (check TSH), renal/hepatic impairment, older age, low body mass, alcohol, vitamin D deficiency. Management: if CK < 5× ULN and tolerable → consider continuing or reducing dose/switching; CK > 10× ULN or severe → stop. Pravastatin/rosuvastatin have fewer CYP3A4 interactions. Ezetimibe (cholesterol absorption inhibitor) and PCSK9 inhibitors are alternatives/add-ons. Statins: check LFTs at baseline, 3 and 12 months.
- Night-time dosing, hypertension: Timing of the dose does not affect myopathy risk.
- Pravastatin, regular exercise: Pravastatin is a lower-risk statin.
- ACE inhibitors, hypertension: ACE inhibitors and hypertension are not risk factors for statin myopathy.
6. Which drug is used for most intestinal roundworm infections (Ascaris, hookworm) and in mass deworming programmes, and how does it act?
Answer: Albendazole — β-tubulin. Benzimidazoles (albendazole, mebendazole) bind parasite β-tubulin → inhibit microtubule polymerisation and glucose uptake → worm death; used for Ascaris, hookworm, Trichuris, Enterobius (pinworm — treat household), hydatid disease (albendazole, prolonged), neurocysticercosis (with steroids). Avoid in first trimester. WHO school-based deworming: single-dose albendazole 400 mg periodically in endemic areas (children ≥ 1 year, 200 mg 12–23 months). Praziquantel: tapeworms (Taenia) and schistosomiasis. Ivermectin: Strongyloides, onchocerciasis, scabies.
- Ivermectin — β-tubulin: Ivermectin acts on chloride channels.
- Praziquantel — calcium influx: Praziquantel treats tapeworms and schistosomes.
- Pyrantel — depolarising block: Effective, but not used for mass deworming.
7. Which antihypertensive drug is taken up into sympathetic nerve endings and blocks noradrenaline release, causing postural hypotension, and is antagonised by tricyclic antidepressants?
Answer: Guanethidine. Adrenergic neurone blockers (guanethidine, bretylium): taken up by NET (uptake-1) into sympathetic nerve terminals, block noradrenaline release → postural/exercise hypotension, diarrhoea, failure of ejaculation; tricyclics block uptake-1 and antagonise their effect. Reserpine depletes vesicular stores (VMAT inhibition — depression). Clonidine: central α2 agonist (rebound hypertension on stopping). Methyldopa: false transmitter/central α2 (pregnancy). Now largely historical except guanethidine for regional sympathetic block.
- Clonidine: Clonidine is a central α2 agonist.
- Prazosin: Prazosin is an α1 blocker.
- Reserpine: Reserpine depletes vesicular stores (VMAT).
8. What is the role of clavulanic acid in co-amoxiclav?
Answer: Inhibits bacterial β-lactamase. β-lactamase inhibitors (clavulanic acid, sulbactam, tazobactam, avibactam) bind and inactivate β-lactamases, protecting the partner β-lactam (amoxicillin, ampicillin, piperacillin, ceftazidime) and extending cover to β-lactamase-producing organisms (H. influenzae, Moraxella, S. aureus (MSSA), anaerobes, some Enterobacterales). Co-amoxiclav: cholestatic jaundice (especially older men, longer courses), diarrhoea. MRSA resistance is via altered PBP2a (mecA) — inhibitors don’t help.
- Blocks penicillin-binding proteins: Blocking PBPs is amoxicillin’s action.
- Increases renal excretion: Clavulanate does not increase renal excretion.
- Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis: It does not inhibit protein synthesis.
9. Sodium cromoglicate is used prophylactically in allergic conjunctivitis and asthma. How does it act?
Answer: Stabilises mast cells. Cromones (sodium cromoglicate, nedocromil): stabilise mast cell membranes, preventing release of histamine and other mediators — prophylactic only (no effect in acute attacks), very safe; used in allergic conjunctivitis (eye drops), allergic rhinitis, exercise-induced asthma (largely superseded by ICS). Other allergy drugs: antihistamines (H1), leukotriene receptor antagonists (montelukast — neuropsychiatric effects), corticosteroids, omalizumab (anti-IgE).
- Blocks H1 histamine receptors: H1 blockade is how antihistamines act.
- Blocks leukotriene receptors: Leukotriene blockade is how montelukast acts.
- Stimulates β2 adrenoceptors: β2 stimulation is how salbutamol acts.
10. A patient on long-term hydralazine develops arthralgia, rash and positive anti-histone antibodies. Which genetic trait increases this risk?
Answer: Slow acetylator phenotype. N-acetyltransferase 2 (NAT2) polymorphism: slow acetylators (≈ 50% of South Asians and Europeans) accumulate drugs → drug-induced lupus (hydralazine, procainamide, isoniazid — anti-histone antibodies, spares kidneys and CNS), isoniazid peripheral neuropathy (give pyridoxine), sulfonamide toxicity; rapid acetylators — lower INH levels and possible treatment failure with intermittent regimens. Other pharmacogenetics: G6PD deficiency (haemolysis), TPMT (azathioprine), HLA-B*15:02 (carbamazepine SJS), pseudocholinesterase deficiency (suxamethonium apnoea), CYP2C19 poor metabolisers (clopidogrel failure).
- Rapid acetylator phenotype: Rapid acetylators have a lower risk.
- CYP2D6 ultra-rapid metaboliser: CYP2D6 ultra-rapid metabolism affects codeine.
- TPMT deficiency: TPMT deficiency affects azathioprine.
11. A patient is unconscious after an unknown mixed overdose; ECG shows QRS 140 ms. Why should flumazenil be avoided?
Answer: It may precipitate seizures. Flumazenil: competitive GABA-A benzodiazepine-site antagonist; reverses benzodiazepine sedation (e.g. after procedural sedation). In mixed overdoses (especially TCAs — wide QRS — or other proconvulsants) or in benzodiazepine-dependent patients, removing benzodiazepine protection can precipitate seizures and arrhythmias; short half-life → resedation. Benzodiazepine overdose alone is rarely fatal — supportive care (airway, ventilation) is preferred. Naloxone for opioids is safer and widely used.
- It causes respiratory depression: Flumazenil does not cause respiratory depression.
- It is ineffective for benzodiazepines: Flumazenil does reverse benzodiazepines.
- It worsens hypoglycaemia: Flumazenil does not worsen hypoglycaemia.
12. Which long-term toxicity requires regular screening in patients on hydroxychloroquine for SLE or rheumatoid arthritis?
Answer: Retinopathy. Hydroxychloroquine: antimalarial and DMARD (SLE — reduces flares and mortality; RA, Sjögren); toxicity — irreversible retinopathy (bull’s-eye maculopathy) related to dose (> 5 mg/kg real body weight/day) and duration (risk after ~5 years) — baseline exam and annual screening after 5 years (OCT, visual fields); also skin pigmentation, GI upset, cardiomyopathy (rare), QT prolongation, hypoglycaemia. Safe in pregnancy and lactation.
- Pulmonary fibrosis: Pulmonary fibrosis is caused by methotrexate or amiodarone.
- Peripheral neuropathy: Neuropathy is uncommon.
- Haemorrhagic cystitis: Haemorrhagic cystitis is caused by cyclophosphamide.
Topics covered
Diuretics, CNS drugs, Pharmacokinetics, Endocrine drugs, Antibacterials, Antimicrobials, Anticoagulants, Autonomic drugs, Analgesics, Psychiatric drugs, Chemotherapy, Pharmacodynamics, Pharmacogenetics, GI drugs, Uterine drugs, Antivirals, Special groups, Drugs acting on CVS, Drugs in pregnancy, Respiratory drugs, Immunosuppressants, Adverse reactions, Lipid-lowering, Anaesthetics, Toxicology & antidotes, Glaucoma drugs, Autacoids, Antihypertensives, Antiarrhythmics, Antituberculous drugs, STI treatment, Vaccines & sera, Rational prescribing, Vincristine, Drug interactions, Drugs in diabetes, Lipid-lowering drugs, Corticosteroids, Emergency drugs, Psychotropic drugs
Frequently asked questions
How many NRE Step 1 Pharmacology questions are in the bank?
There are 202 Pharmacology questions in NRE-1 Prep, each with an explanation for every option.
Are these past paper questions?
No. Every question is original, written by us and mapped to the published PMDC NRE syllabus.
More NRE Step 1 subjects
MedicineSurgeryPaediatricsPathologyObstetrics and GynaecologyAnatomyPhysiologyBiochemistryCommunity MedicineENTOphthalmologyForensic Medicine